In Hebrew, as in English, the ordinary verb "to see" is used also of understanding ("I see what you mean") and of the power of perception into the nature and meaning of things ("He sees things very clearly"). In the case of the prophets, their powers of "perception" were raised far above normal because the Lord inspired them to become vehicles of his message.[1]Let us consider Matthew 3:3. The word prophet in Greek is (προφήτης) and it means: "An interpreter or forth-teller of the divine will."[2] Let me even go further and quote what my digital commentary states:
A fixed feature of the early Christian tradition, Isa 40:3 is quoted in all four Gospels (John lacks the last line) to describe the function of John the Baptist. All four Gospels identify the words as those of Isaiah the prophet. The use of the quotation by Matthew is consonant with his stress on fulfillment; although he does not here employ a characteristic fulfillment formula, he does make use of a pesher-type formula ("this is that"), which points to fulfillment (cf. Acts 2:16). Of the Synoptics, however, Matthew most emphatically calls attention to the identity of John as the one spoken of by Isaiah with οὗτος γάρ ἐστιν, "this is the one."[3]John the Baptist was considered the prophet which Isaiah wrote about. And, John the Baptist also brought forth the "good news" (see Isaiah 52:7 & 61:1). Therefore, John’s role as a prophet was composed of prophecy and the proclamation of God’s good news.
As I stated in class I believe the New Testament is the fulfillment of the Old Testament. Moreover, the church believes Jesus holds three offices (prophet, priest, and king) as we can read about these different offices throughout Scripture. Further, Christ is the pinnacle of each office which includes prophecy (Ephesians 2:20). Since Christ is the fulfillment of the message of the prophets, and because the New Testament is the fulfillment of the Old Testament; I have no reason to suppose there is or will be some sort of prophet who "prophesied" or will "prophesy" to the point where he or she would add anything new to the Bible. The canonization of the books of Bible assumes God’s revelation is "closed." Else, why canonize and close the canon of Scripture?
Now, I am certainly not going against the New Testament when it claims that some bear the fruit of prophecy. Indeed, God gave/gives the gift of prophecy to some, but this prophecy cannot add to what has already been revealed, rather, it confirms what has already been revealed. In fact, in thinking about what an office of prophecy might entail now we should consider Ephesians 3: 5-7:
Now this secret was not disclosed to people in former generations as it has now been revealed to his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit, namely, that through the gospel the Gentiles are fellow heirs, fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus. I became a servant of this gospel according to the gift of God’s grace that was given to me by the exercise of his power.[4]Please note that verse 5 claims the "secret" has been revealed revealed here means to "uncover." Meaning, the revelation has already happened or has been fulfilled. So, while I might be able accept there are people who [currently] hold the office of a prophet; I would be wise to question anything that is or seems outside of Scripture. For further references I point to 1 Corinthians 14:29, 32, 37-40. Is it possible the role of the prophet [now] is mainly to proclaim the good news that has already been revealed?
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[1] Walter A. Elwell and Philip Wesley Comfort. Tyndale Bible Dictionary (Wheaton, 2001), p. 1085.
[2] Robert L. Thomas, New American Standard Hebrew-Aramaic and Greek Dictionaries: Updated Edition (Anaheim, 1998).
[3] Donald A. Hagner, Word Biblical Commentary : Matthew 1-13, Word Biblical Commentary (Dallas, 2002). 48.
[4] Biblical Studies Press, The NET Bible First Edition; Bible. English. NET Bible.; The NET Bible (Biblical Studies Press, 2006; 2006). Eph 3:5–7
